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Red Seal Certificate of Qualification Program
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Red Seal Challenge Test Questions
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Red Seal Challenge Test Questions
Red Seal Truck and Coach Technician Practice Questions
1. What is the primary purpose of the air brake system's supply tank?
- A) To store compressed air for the brake system
- B) To cool down the air before it enters the brake system
- C) To filter moisture from the air
- D) To regulate air pressure to the brakes
- Answer: A) To store compressed air for the brake system
---
2. Which component is responsible for converting mechanical energy into hydraulic pressure in a power steering system?
- A) Steering column
- B) Power steering pump
- C) Steering gear
- D) Pitman arm
- Answer: B) Power steering pump
---
3. What is the function of a turbocharger in a diesel engine?
- A) To increase fuel efficiency by recycling exhaust gases
- B) To reduce engine noise
- C) To increase engine power by forcing more air into the combustion chamber
- D) To cool down the engine
- Answer: C) To increase engine power by forcing more air into the combustion chamber
---
4. Which of the following is a common sign of a failing wheel bearing?
- A) Squeaking brakes
- B) Hard steering
- C) Engine overheating
- D) Noise coming from the wheel area
- Answer: D) Noise coming from the wheel area
---
5. What is the primary function of the differential in a truck?
- A) To allow the vehicle to turn corners smoothly
- B) To increase the vehicle's speed
- C) To transmit power to the wheels
- D) To reduce the vehicle's fuel consumption
- Answer: A) To allow the vehicle to turn corners smoothly
---
6. What does an EGR (Exhaust Gas Recirculation) valve do in a diesel engine?
- A) Increases horsepower
- B) Reduces nitrogen oxide emissions
- C) Cools the exhaust gases
- D) Filters particulate matter
- Answer: B) Reduces nitrogen oxide emissions
---
7. What is the purpose of using retarders in heavy trucks?
- A) To increase fuel efficiency
- B) To assist in braking and reduce brake wear
- C) To improve acceleration
- D) To regulate engine temperature
- Answer: B) To assist in braking and reduce brake wear
---
8. Which component is essential for the operation of a common rail fuel injection system in modern trucks?
- A) Carburetor
- B) High-pressure fuel pump
- C) Mechanical fuel pump
- D) Fuel filter
- Answer: B) High-pressure fuel pump
---
9. What does the term "Jake Brake" refer to in the trucking industry?
- A) A type of air brake
- B) A hydraulic brake booster
- C) An engine compression release brake
- D) A drum brake design
- Answer: C) An engine compression release brake
---
10. In a truck's air conditioning system, what does the evaporator do?
- A) Compresses refrigerant
- B) Cools the air by removing heat
- C) Condenses the refrigerant
- D) Expels heat to the outside
- Answer: B) Cools the air by removing heat
---
Red Seal Steamfitter Practice Questions
1. What is the primary function of a steam trap in a steam heating system?
- A) To regulate steam pressure
- B) To remove condensate and air without losing steam
- C) To add moisture to the steam
- D) To control the temperature of the steam
- Answer: B) To remove condensate and air without losing steam
---
2. Which type of valve is typically used to control the flow direction in a piping system?
- A) Globe valve
- B) Gate valve
- C) Check valve
- D) Butterfly valve
- Answer: C) Check valve
---
3. What is the purpose of a pressure reducing valve in a steam system?
- A) To increase the steam pressure for industrial applications
- B) To reduce the steam pressure to a safer, more usable level
- C) To control the temperature of the steam
- D) To prevent backflow of steam
- Answer: B) To reduce the steam pressure to a safer, more usable level
---
4. Which piping material is most commonly used for high-pressure steam lines?
-
A) Copper
- B) PVC
- C) Carbon steel
- D) PEX
- Answer: C) Carbon steel
---
5. In a steam distribution system, what is the main purpose of insulation on steam pipes?
- A) To prevent corrosion
- B) To reduce noise
- C) To maintain steam temperature and reduce energy loss
- D) To prevent the pipes from overheating
- Answer: C) To maintain steam temperature and reduce energy loss
---
6. What does the term "blowdown" refer to in the context of steam boilers?
- A) The process of reducing boiler pressure by releasing steam
- B) The removal of sediment and impurities from the boiler water
- C) The emergency shutdown of a boiler
- D) The cooling down process of a boiler
- Answer: B) The removal of sediment and impurities from the boiler water
---
7. What is a condensate return system used for in a steam heating system?
- A) To return condensed steam back to the boiler for reuse
- B) To expel condensate to the outside environment
- C) To heat the condensate before it enters the boiler
- D) To remove condensate from the steam before it reaches the radiators
- Answer: A) To return condensed steam back to the boiler for reuse
---
8. Which type of joint is most commonly used for joining steel pipes in a high-pressure steam system?
- A) Solder joint
- B) Welded joint
- C) Threaded joint
- D) Compression fitting
- Answer: B) Welded joint
---
9. What is the purpose of a deaerator in a steam system?
- A) To increase the oxygen content in the water
- B) To remove dissolved gases, including oxygen, from the boiler feedwater
- C) To heat the water before it enters the boiler
- D) To add chemicals to the water for corrosion protection
- Answer: B) To remove dissolved gases, including oxygen, from the boiler feedwater
---
10. What principle does a thermostatic steam trap operate on?
- A) Differential pressure
- B) Temperature difference
- C) Velocity of steam
- D) Specific gravity
- Answer: B) Temperature difference
---
Red Seal Instrumentation and Controls Technician Practice Questions
1. What is the primary function of a PID controller in a control system?
- A) To provide power to the system
- B) To measure process variables
- C) To regulate the process variables to a set point using proportional, integral, and derivative actions
- D) To convert signals from one form to another
- Answer: C) To regulate the process variables to a set point using proportional, integral, and derivative actions
---
2. Which device is commonly used to measure fluid flow in a pipeline?
- A) Thermocouple
- B) Pressure transmitter
- C) Flow meter
- D) Level sensor
- Answer: C) Flow meter
---
3. What is the purpose of a 4-20 mA signal in process control?
- A) To provide a safety shutdown signal
- B) To transmit measurement data from field instruments to controllers
- C) To supply electrical power to devices
- D) To indicate a system fault
- Answer: B) To transmit measurement data from field instruments to controllers
---
4. In a control system, what does the term "HART" stand for, and what is its purpose?
- A) High Accuracy Response Technology; to improve the response time of sensors
- B) High-speed Automated Response Technique; to enhance system reaction speed
- C) Highway Addressable Remote Transducer; to allow digital communication over traditional 4-20 mA analog signals
- D) High Amplitude Resonance Tuning; to fine-tune process control frequencies
- Answer: C) Highway Addressable Remote Transducer; to allow digital communication over traditional 4-20 mA analog signals
---
5. What is the function of a differential pressure transmitter in process instrumentation?
- A) To measure temperature differences across a process
- B) To measure the difference in pressure between two points of a system or process
- C) To transmit data at differential rates
- D) To control differential valves
- Answer: B) To measure the difference in pressure between two points of a system or process
---
6. Which type of sensor is typically used for measuring temperature in
industrial applications?
- A) Piezoelectric sensor
- B) Capacitive sensor
- C) RTD (Resistance Temperature Detector)
- D) Inductive sensor
- Answer: C) RTD (Resistance Temperature Detector)
---
7. What does SCADA stand for, and what is its purpose in industrial control systems?
- A) Systematic Control and Data Acquisition; to systematically control industrial processes
- B) Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition; to monitor and control plant processes remotely
- C) Synchronous Control and Data Analysis; to synchronize control signals and analyze data
- D) Secure Communication and Data Allocation; to secure communications and allocate data efficiently
- Answer: B) Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition; to monitor and control plant processes remotely
---
8. In instrumentation, what is the purpose of a "loop check"?
- A) To check the continuity of electrical circuits
- B) To verify the correct operation of a control loop, including all its instruments and components
- C) To measure the loop resistance for electrical safety
- D) To calibrate loop controllers
- Answer: B) To verify the correct operation of a control loop, including all its instruments and components
---
9. What is the principle of operation for an ultrasonic level transmitter?
- A) It uses a float mechanism to measure liquid level
- B) It measures the electrical conductivity of the liquid
- C) It emits ultrasonic pulses and measures the time it takes for the echo to return
- D) It uses a differential pressure method to determine liquid level
- Answer: C) It emits ultrasonic pulses and measures the time it takes for the echo to return
---
10. Which type of valve is most commonly used in automatic control systems for regulating flow or pressure?
- A) Ball valve
- B) Gate valve
- C) Globe valve
- D) Butterfly valve
- Answer: C) Globe valve
---
Red Seal Refrigeration and Air Conditioning Technician Practice Questions
1. What is the function of the compressor in a refrigeration cycle?
- A) To cool the refrigerant
- B) To circulate the refrigerant through the system
- C) To increase the pressure and temperature of the refrigerant
- D) To remove moisture from the refrigerant
- Answer: C) To increase the pressure and temperature of the refrigerant
---
2. Which component in a refrigeration system is responsible for absorbing heat from the environment?
- A) Condenser
- B) Expansion valve
- C) Evaporator
- D) Receiver
- Answer: C) Evaporator
---
3. What is the purpose of the expansion valve in a refrigeration cycle?
- A) To compress the refrigerant
- B) To control the flow of refrigerant into the evaporator
- C) To condense the refrigerant
- D) To store excess refrigerant
- Answer: B) To control the flow of refrigerant into the evaporator
---
4. Which type of refrigerant is considered environmentally friendly due to its low Global Warming Potential (GWP)?
- A) R-22
- B) R-134a
- C) R-410A
- D) R-32
- Answer: D) R-32
---
5. What is the main reason for performing a vacuum pull on a refrigeration system before charging it with refrigerant?
- A) To test the strength of the system
- B) To remove air and moisture from the system
- C) To cool down the system components
- D) To increase the efficiency of the refrigerant
- Answer: B) To remove air and moisture from the system
---
6. In HVAC systems, what does the term "SEER" stand for, and what does it measure?
- A) System Efficiency Energy Ratio; measures the energy efficiency of heating systems
- B) Seasonal Energy Efficiency Ratio; measures the cooling efficiency of air conditioners over a typical cooling season
- C) Sustainable Energy Emission Rate; measures the environmental impact of HVAC systems
- D) Systematic Energy Evaluation Rating; measures the overall efficiency of HVAC systems
- Answer: B) Seasonal Energy Efficiency Ratio; measures the cooling efficiency of air conditioners over a typical cooling season
---
7. What is the main purpose of a filter drier in a refrigeration system?
- A) To dry the air inside the refrigerated space
- B) To remove debris and moisture from the refrigerant
- C) To filter the air entering the system
- D) To store excess refrigerant during low-demand periods
- Answer: B) To remove debris and moisture from the refrigerant
---
8. Which component is used to remove heat from the refrigerant and release it to the outside environment?
- A) Evaporator
- B) Compressor
- C) Condenser
- D) Expansion valve
- Answer: C) Condenser
---
9. What is the significance of a "superheat" measurement in refrigeration systems?
- A) It indicates the temperature of the refrigerant after it has evaporated in the evaporator
- B) It measures the efficiency of the compressor
- C) It determines the level of refrigerant charge in the system
- D) It indicates the temperature of the refrigerant before entering the condenser
- Answer: A) It indicates the temperature of the refrigerant after it has evaporated in the evaporator
---
10. In refrigeration terminology, what does the term "subcooling" refer to?
- A) Cooling of the refrigerant below its boiling point before it enters the evaporator
- B) The process of cooling the refrigerant below its condensation temperature
- C) The reduction of temperature in the refrigerated space below the set point
- D) The cooling of the compressor to extend its lifespan
- Answer: B) The process of cooling the refrigerant below its condensation temperature
---
Red Seal Chef Practice Questions
1. What is the primary function of blanching vegetables before freezing?
- A) To enhance their color
- B) To reduce their nutritional value
- C) To increase their cooking time
- D) To destroy enzymes that cause spoilage
- Answer: D) To destroy enzymes that cause spoilage
---
2. In baking, what purpose does kneading dough serve?
- A) To cool the dough
- B) To mix ingredients thoroughly
- C) To develop gluten, giving the dough structure and elasticity
- D) To add air bubbles to the dough
- Answer: C) To develop gluten, giving the dough structure and elasticity
---
3. What is the term for cooking food in a vacuum-sealed bag in a water bath at a precise temperature?
- A) Broiling
- B) Sous-vide
- C) Braising
- D) Steaming
- Answer: B) Sous-vide
---
4. Which of the following is a classic thickening agent made from equal parts butter and flour?
- A) Bechamel
- B) Roux
- C) Slurry
- D) Fond
- Answer: B) Roux
---
5. What is the main reason for resting meat after cooking and before slicing?
- A) To cool it down to a safe eating temperature
- B) To allow the juices to redistribute throughout the meat, ensuring it is moist and tender
- C) To make it easier to carve
- D) To reduce its nutritional value
- Answer: B) To allow the juices to redistribute throughout the meat, ensuring it is moist and tender
---
6. What cooking method involves submerging food in a pot of liquid kept just below boiling point?
- A) Frying
- B) Searing
- C) Poaching
- D) Grilling
- Answer: C) Poaching
---
7. In professional kitchens, what does the term "mise en place" mean?
- A) Cleaning the kitchen after service
- B) The process of plating dishes
- C) Preparing and organizing ingredients before cooking
- D) The layout of the kitchen
- Answer: C) Preparing and organizing ingredients before cooking
---
8. Which ingredient is used to make a classic "velouté" sauce?
- A) Tomato
- B) Chocolate
- C) Stock
- D) Milk
- Answer: C) Stock
---
9. What is the culinary term for the process of lightly toasting spices in a dry pan to enhance their flavors?
- A) Blanching
- B) Deglazing
- C) Blooming
- D) Emulsifying
- Answer: C) Blooming
---
10. What technique is used to cook a steak where it is seared on high heat and then finished in an oven?
- A) Broiling
- B) Pan-frying
- C)
Reverse sear
- D) Grilling
- Answer: C) Reverse sear
---
Red Seal Painter and Decorator Practice Questions
1. What is the purpose of applying a primer before painting?
- A) To increase the paint's drying time
- B) To reduce the paint's color intensity
- C) To provide a smooth surface for the paint
- D) To improve paint adhesion and protect the surface
- Answer: D) To improve paint adhesion and protect the surface
---
2. Which technique is used to create a textured finish on a wall using two or more colors?
- A) Sponging
- B) Stripping
- C) Stenciling
- D) Marbling
- Answer: A) Sponging
---
3. What is the recommended method for removing old wallpaper before repainting a wall?
- A) Sanding
- B) Heat gun and scraping
- C) Applying a new layer of wallpaper over it
- D) Washing it with water
- Answer: B) Heat gun and scraping
---
4. In decorative finishing, what is "faux bois" technique used to imitate?
- A) Marble
- B) Fabric
- C) Wood grain
- D) Stone
- Answer: C) Wood grain
---
5. What safety equipment is essential when sanding or stripping paint in an enclosed space?
- A) Heat-resistant gloves
- B) Dust mask or respirator
- C) Safety goggles only
- D) Ear protection
- Answer: B) Dust mask or respirator
---
6. Which type of paint finish is most suitable for high-traffic areas due to its durability and ease of cleaning?
- A) Matte
- B) Satin
- C) Semi-gloss
- D) Gloss
- Answer: C) Semi-gloss
---
7. What is the main advantage of using water-based paints over oil-based paints?
- A) Longer drying time
- B) Stronger odor
- C) Easier cleanup with water
- D) Higher toxicity
- Answer: C) Easier cleanup with water
---
8. How should a painter deal with a surface affected by mildew before painting?
- A) Paint over it with a high-gloss paint
- B) Clean the area with a mildew-resistant cleaner
- C) Ignore it as paint will cover it
- D) Use sandpaper to remove the mildew
- Answer: B) Clean the area with a mildew-resistant cleaner
---
9. Which tool is best suited for cutting in edges and corners when painting a room?
- A) A roller
- B) A wide brush
- C) An angled sash brush
- D) A sprayer
- Answer: C) An angled sash brush
---
10. What is the key to achieving a smooth finish when painting a surface with a brush?
- A) Using a small amount of paint on the brush
- B) Applying heavy pressure on the brush
- C) Painting in the direction of the natural light
- D) Ensuring the brush is fully loaded but not overloaded with paint
- Answer: D) Ensuring the brush is fully loaded but not overloaded with paint
---
Red Seal Sprinklerfitter Practice Questions
1. What is the primary purpose of a fire sprinkler system?
- A) To provide a means of escape during a fire
- B) To detect smoke in a building
- C) To extinguish or control fires to minimize property damage and loss of life
- D) To alert occupants of a fire
- Answer: C) To extinguish or control fires to minimize property damage and loss of life
---
2. Which type of sprinkler system discharges water only over the area where the fire has been detected?
- A) Wet pipe system
- B) Dry pipe system
- C) Deluge system
- D) Pre-action system
- Answer: D) Pre-action system
---
3. What does the term "head spacing" refer to in the context of sprinkler installation?
- A) The distance between the sprinkler head and the ceiling
- B) The distance between individual sprinkler heads
- C) The height of the sprinkler head from the floor
- D) The angle at which sprinkler heads are installed
- Answer: B) The distance between individual sprinkler
heads
---
4. What is the main difference between a wet pipe and a dry pipe sprinkler system?
- A) Wet pipe systems use foam, while dry pipe systems use water
- B) Wet pipe systems are filled with water at all times, whereas dry pipe systems are filled with air or nitrogen until the system is activated
- C) Dry pipe systems are used indoors, while wet pipe systems are used outdoors
- D) Wet pipe systems require electricity, while dry pipe systems do not
- Answer: B) Wet pipe systems are filled with water at all times, whereas dry pipe systems are filled with air or nitrogen until the system is activated
---
5. In sprinkler systems, what is the function of a riser?
- A) To distribute water horizontally across the system
- B) To connect the water supply to the sprinkler system and provide a means of controlling the flow of water
- C) To increase water pressure within the system
- D) To support sprinkler pipes against the ceiling
- Answer: B) To connect the water supply to the sprinkler system and provide a means of controlling the flow of water
---
6. What precaution should be taken when installing sprinkler systems in areas subject to freezing temperatures?
- A) Use of wet pipe systems exclusively
- B) Installation of additional smoke detectors
- C) Insulation of the sprinkler piping
- D) Use of antifreeze in the sprinkler system
- Answer: D) Use of antifreeze in the sprinkler system
---
7. What is the purpose of a flow switch in a sprinkler system?
- A) To detect a change in water flow indicative of a sprinkler activation
- B) To manually control the water flow to different areas
- C) To stop the flow of water after a fire has been extinguished
- D) To increase water flow pressure
- Answer: A) To detect a change in water flow indicative of a sprinkler activation
---
8. Which component is essential for providing a constant water supply to a fire sprinkler system in a high-rise building?
- A) Pressure reducing valve
- B) Fire department connection
- C) Fire pump
- D) Backflow preventer
- Answer: C) Fire pump
---
9. What is the function of a tamper switch in a sprinkler system?
- A) To detect unauthorized tampering with the system components
- B) To automatically shut off water flow
- C) To activate the sprinkler heads
- D) To reduce water pressure
- Answer: A) To detect unauthorized tampering with the system components
---
10. In a deluge sprinkler system, how are the sprinkler heads configured?
- A) They are open and will all activate simultaneously when the system is triggered
- B) They are closed and will open individually in response to heat
- C) They require manual activation
- D) They are used only for decorative purposes
- Answer: A) They are open and will all activate simultaneously when the system is triggered
Our Red Seal Study Packages are valid for all Canadian Provinces. Specific differences between provinces are highlighted within the study packages for all provinces.
Red Seal Test / Exam Prep Textbook Construction Craft 450A, Millwright 433A, Electrician 309A 442A, Powerline Technician 434A, Plumber 306A, Carpenter 403A, Sprinkler Fitter 427A, Hairstylist / Hair Stylist 332A, Instrumentation & Controls 447A, Refrigeration & Air Conditioning 313A, Automotive Service Technician 310S, Steamfitter & Pipefitter 307A, Cook, Chef & Cook Assistant 415A, 415B & 415C, Welder 456A, Machinist 429A, Sheet Metal Worker 308A, Autobody Refinisher, Body & Collision Technician 310B - 310Q - 410N, Hoisting Engineer, Mobile Crane & Tower Crane Operator 339A 339B 339C, Truck & Transport Mechanic 310T & 310S, Heavy Equipment Technician & Mechanic 421A, Drywall Finisher & Plasterer 453A Bricklayer & Stone Mason 401A, Ironworker Generalist Red Seal 420A, Roofer 449A, Painter Decorator 404C, Insulator Heat & Frost 253A, Glazier 424A, Architectural Glass & Metal 424A, Gasfitter / Gas Fitter / Gas Technician NOC 72302, Boilermaker 428A Exam Kit Exam Readings Actual Exam Questions. Red Seal Exam Mississauga,
This study kit contains everything you need to easily clear your Canadian Red Seal Exams. Use this link to get them: https://www.coursetreelearning.com/real-seal-skilled-trades-exams
Red Seal Exam Practice Exam PDF
Autobody Refinisher, Body & Collision Technician 310B - 310Q - 410N
Automotive Service Technician 310S
Boilermaker 428A
Bricklayer & Stone Mason 401A
Carpenter 403A
Construction Craft Worker Generalist 450A
Cook, Chef & Cook Assistant 415A, 415B & 415C
Drywall Finisher & Plasterer 453A
Electrician 309A 442A (MESAT)
Glazier 424A, Architectural Glass & Metal
Hair Stylist 332A
Heavy Equipment Technician & Mechanic 421A
Hoisting Engineer, Mobile Crane & Tower Crane Operator 339A 339B 339C
Instrumentation & Controls 447A
Insulator Heat & Frost 253A
Ironworker Generalist Red Seal 420A Exam Kit
Machinist 429A
Millwright 433A
Painter & Decorator 404C
Plumber 306A
Powerline Technician 434A
Refrigeration & Air Conditioning Mechanic 313A
Roofer Red Seal 449A
Sheet Metal Worker 308A
Sprinkler Fitter 427A
Steamfitter & Pipefitter 307A
Truck & Transport Mechanic 310T & 310S
Truck-Trailer Service Technician 310J
Welder 456A
Red Seal Exam Practice Exam PDF
The Study Kit Contains the Following Resources:
Complete readings, chapters and learning objectives covering the Canadian Red Seal curriculum and Standards.
-Four complete Red Seal exams with answers
-Flashcards training program with questions on the front and answers on the back
-This is everything you need to easily clear your Canadian Red Seal exams.
Requirements
Graduating from a recognized provincial or territorial apprenticeship training program. Meeting requirements established by the provincial or territorial apprenticeship authority. Having the time and experience working in a Red Seal trade assessed to qualify to write the Red Seal examination.
Dealing with Stress and Exam Anxiety
The Red Seal Exam is an important step to getting your Red Seal endorsement. It is normal to have some anxiety and stress before or during your exam. Here are some tips to help you manage:
Plan your time! Allow yourself enough time to learn and study before your exam.
Schedule your study time! Use a paper or an electronic calendar to devote specific time to studying each week leading up to your exam.
Breathe! Calm and deep breathing may help you to refocus and to find the answers more easily.
Talk positively to yourself! Remind yourself of why you are taking the exam. Remember the time and effort you have put into your training and exam preparation.
Fill your mind with positive images: Your last vacation, your favourite activity, someone who helps you to feel grounded. Once you feel more calm, return to your studies.
Look for tools that reduce stress through mindfulness and meditation. Many apps, podcasts and videos are freely available on mobile devices and online.
Physical activity helps to deal with stressful situations like exams. Enough rest and proper nutrition are also key to dealing with anxiety.
Make sure you know exactly where and when the exam will take place. Plan ahead and allow yourself plenty of time to get there.
You may also consult a specialist to help you manage anxiety and stress.
Know the Rules for the Exam Room
Here are some general rules that you should know in advance. There might be specific rules that apply in your province or territory.
You must:
Not cheat. This will result in expulsion from the exam session and other penalties.
Not copy any exam information or leave with any exam material. Any attempts to share, reproduce or leave with any exam information will result in expulsion from the exam session and other penalties.
Not bring any materials into the room.
Place all items required during the exam on the desk. Accessing personal items, including reaching into pockets is not permitted during the exam.
Remove all outerwear (e.g.: jackets, hats, hoodies) during the exam.
Not bring backpacks, purses or pouches to the exam.
Not bring any electronic device in the exam room. These include but are not limited to: picture, video, voice recording and transmitting devices, calculators (if you need one, it will be provided), cell phones, tablets, media players, watches, headsets, cameras, microphones.
Have all other items approved by the examiner before bringing them into the exam room (water, food, etc.).
Use only the pencils, erasers, calculators and scrap paper provided.
Not communicate with or disrupt other candidates.
Ask the examiner for approval to leave the exam room.
Return all materials provided to the examiner after completion.
Not attempt to open any computer applications during the exam (programs, websites, etc.).
Not look at another candidate’s exam materials.
Some Final Tips for Writing Multiple-Choice Exams
Read each question carefully and completely. Do not assume you know what the question is asking after you’ve read only part of it.
Process the question you read. Look for the key words that will trigger the thought process.
Manage your time. Divide the time allowed by the number of questions on the exam to gauge how much time per question you have. Some questions will not take you nearly that long, and others may take a bit longer. At the halfway point, check if you have completed half of the exam, and adjust your pace accordingly.
Separate long questions into smaller parts to make them easier to understand.
Read (process) what the question is asking. Think of the answer based on your experience, preparation and training. Find the answer from the list of options.
As you read all the options, take note of those you know are wrong to narrow your options.
If you are answering a question that involves calculation, estimate what the correct answer is first. Once you calculate the answer, you can decide whether it seems right.
Draw a diagram or jot down a formula if it helps answer a question.
If you don’t know the answer, jot down the question number, move on and come back later. It’s better to finish the easier questions first and come back to the more difficult ones later. (Each exam question is worth with the same, no matter if it is easy or difficult.)
Answer all questions, even if you have to guess. You have at least a 25% chance of guessing correctly. Do not leave any question unanswered.
If you still have some time after answering all questions, take some time to review everything and make sure your responses are marked on the correct line.